At Bibel 397, I have translated the bible with the books listed in the canon in the form existing 397 CE into English, using the papyri and codices that are nowadays all digitized. In 397 the bible was only existing in ancient greek. All improvements later were however done differently by the various churches and denominations. So this is the english translation of the original "source code".
As I have done the collection of all fragments and the translation mostly by myself, as there are few christians interested enough in the "source code", please let me know of any mistakes I have made?
Thanks
Cay
Cay, I went through your website more carefully, and the problem is much bigger than whether you missed a word in a verse.
You are presenting this as the original “source code” of the Bible based on the canon of 397, but Scripture itself does not give us that standard. God’s Word existed long before any council produced a list of books. Paul said the Jews “were committed the oracles of God” in Romans 3:2. Timothy had known “the holy scriptures” from childhood in 2 Timothy 3:15. Peter was already referring to Paul’s writings alongside “the other scriptures” in 2 Peter 3:16. None of that depended on a council in 397.
I also found a much more serious problem in the books you are presenting as Scripture.
Your translation includes Tobit, Sirach, Baruch, Judith, 1 Maccabees, 2 Maccabees, Wisdom, and others as part of the Bible. But some of those writings teach things that directly conflict with what God has already revealed.
Tobit 12:9 teaches that almsgiving delivers from death and purges away sin. But Scripture says, “the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin” in 1 John 1:7. Hebrews 9:22 says, “without shedding of blood is no remission.” We are saved by grace through faith, “not of works” according to Ephesians 2:8-9.
Sirach also speaks of good works as making atonement for sin. Again, Scripture places atonement in the sacrifice of Christ, not in our works.
Then there is 2 Maccabees 12, where money is sent for a sin offering on behalf of dead men and prayer for the dead is presented as beneficial for their sins. Scripture says, “it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment” in Hebrews 9:27. Hebrews 10:14 says of Christ, “For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.”
Those are not small translation differences. Those are doctrinal contradictions.
If one writing says our sins are cleansed by Christ’s blood and another says almsgiving purges sin, both cannot be the inspired Word of God. If Scripture says Christ offered one sacrifice for sins and another book teaches offerings can be made for the sins of the dead, both cannot be teaching the same truth.
That is why Proverbs 30:5-6 matters here: “Every word of God is pure... Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.”
I also do not accept the claim that the Bible existed only in Greek in 397. The Old Testament was given primarily in Hebrew, with portions in Aramaic. The Septuagint is an ancient Greek translation, but a translation does not become the original source of the Hebrew Scriptures.
So after reviewing what you are promoting, I need to be clear about something as the owner of this forum. You are welcome to discuss Scripture here and you are welcome to defend your claims from Scripture. But you are not welcome to use Biblical Truth Forum to promote, advertise, or recruit people to your “397 Bible” project as though it were the original or authoritative Bible.
The purpose of this forum is to point people to the Word of God, not to promote a collection that includes writings which contradict clear biblical teaching concerning sin, atonement, salvation, and the sufficiency of Christ’s sacrifice.
Isaiah 8:20 gives us the standard: “To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.”
That is the standard I am going to use here.
